Thank you! I certainly get the impulse to avoid coercion. But could you explain a little more? I still don't understand how the kind of sanctions imposed by whatever cultural group in power in the Rifkin scenario aren't also implicit / explicit threats of violence. Say their initial shaming etc don't work - will they not resort to violence, or at least suggest they would, in order to ensure compliance? (If shaming / non-violent sanctions always worked, there would no longer be need for implicit threats of violence in a government, either.)