Do you understand that it is the KJV that has used the name "Lucifer" where it isn't warranted?
Which version then is authoring confusion? Your reasoning seems to go like this:

1. KJV has "Lucifer" falling from Heaven in Isaiah 14:12
2. NIV has "Morning Star" falling from Heaven in Isaiah 14:12
3. Therefore NIV is saying Morning Star=Lucifer
   But the original word in Isaiah 14:12 is not "Lucifer" but "lucifer", which is the Latin for "morning star". It is also a word translated elsewhere by the KJV as 'morning'. Also, please explain where Satan 'laid low the nations' before he was cast down from Heaven, which is what is implied by the KJV.

I'm not sure but it feels like you're very committed to the idea that there is a conspiracy here. I hope you're more committed to the truth than to a particular conspiracy theory. Sometimes it is difficult to back down from a position once we've invested so heavily into it, but it isn't about 'us' or about saving face.