2018-7-1
My speculation is that they are done so (especially the Gary Webb case (Listen/watch the appropriate "Requiem For The Suicided" episode for it), a certain episode from "The Boondocks" and to a lesser extent Seth Rich's case come to mind), in order to to let it be known that it was indeed an assassination, and not a suicide as the bought and paid for institutional media and police claim explicitly.
Why does the institutional narrative differ from the obvious hint in the murder itself?
To make only the less dumb and less obedient get a hint of where their disobedience can lead them to, while calming the dumber and more common cattle/sheeple that buys into the institutional explicit formal narrative.
edit #1:
This time I did not get the busy.pay vote.
It may be due to the other tags that I used, or due to this post following a previous post in less than 6 hours that got the vote.
Future experience will tell by reverse engineering, because there were no answers from the 'busy' crew when I asked in the past.