I had diagnosed the 35 year old woman with PID, and had counselled her, emphasizing the need for the husband to be treated as well.
She said husband was with her, and was in the waiting room; that it would be nice if I also counselled him.
Husband walked in, and from his looks, I could tell he was already in his sixties, and was fast approaching the the seventy year mark.
He kept mute, while I counselled him. When I was done, he asked a question that threw me off balance: "I haven't had sex with my wife in two years [note that his wife had earlier said that her last sexual encounter was barely 3 months ago], so why do I need to be treated as well? Most importantly, how come she has this infection?"
Suddenly, my head was spinning, my eyes were dilated, my heart was doing 120 beats per minute, and my hands were sweaty.
Why didn't the wife confide in me before giving me the go-ahead to call in the husband, and counsel him on the diagnosis, and the need for him to be treated as well; does it mean she didn't quite understand the implication of the diagnosis-- that it means she's been having sex? Question is, if she has [been having sex], and is not with the husband, then with who?
I wasn't ready to break up anyone's marriage. So, even though I froze like a deer caught in the headlights for a microsecond, I broke the ice, and was quick to offer the alternate truth, in order to douse the tension.
" Ummm.... Women's body is open. This means they can get infection from a variety of sources, including suboptimal hygienic practices. Also, your wife has had surgeries before, this means that she may have dense adhesions in her pelvis, which would make it easier for infection to set in."
He heaved a sigh of relief, and went ahead to ask me how to help her wife, so that the "infection" will be cured, and she'd be free.
..... TO BE CONTINUED.