What does this mean?
Searching around I found this article. Here the claim is of 514 patients with Covid-19, nearly 59% were injected with some mRNA injection while 78% of the population are injected.
We have been taking this as a way to shit on the vaccines, as okay, they don't work, but consider this...
My Question Is:
Given that the vaccines have no beneficial effect in terms of preventing hospitalizations for COVID-19, what is the probability that this happens?
Because everyone should try to check against a test whether results may be due to entropy or just randomness.
Let x be the number of people who have been determined to be "jabbed" of the . We expect the probability of a singular representative that belongs in the jabbed group to be 78%, If you grab a random group of 514 people in Israel, what is the probability that no more than 303 have been jabbed?
The probability should be BINOM.DIST(x < 304, 514, 0.78, 1) = 3 x 10-22. That's incredibly low.
I think there is a selection effect though with them only counting the ones that have been determined to have the virus and there is no count of those who had suffered from adverse reactions, including death or disability.