I posted a question on the first part, but I don't see a particular answer to it (or perhaps I've misunderstood the answer): given the voluntary nature of employing governmental services, i.e. the state actor has no coercively-enforced advantage in the marketplace, could an individual simply declare their plot of land independent from state control and become a de-facto tier-one land owner, so long as he or she also does not request the benefits that the state actor is able to provide?