People obviously cannot delegate rights they do not have themselves.

Here is but one of a LARGE number of examples i can & will destroy your childish, immoral argument for a ruling class to be in place, with, as you are pathetically attempting to justify giving some people rights that others do not have, to exploit. And then expect them to do something OTHER than continually commit perjury to sustain those rights, by lying to, and convincing you and as many others as they can, that they do, in fact have your best interests put forth (rolls eyes; grow up) (which they always have and will), while merely exploiting the situation to their benefit (which they always have and will).

If you do not have the right to rob your neighbor on your own, then you cannot possibly give such a right to some public official. Nor can anyone else. No election, no constitution, no political process, can make robbery & extortion, moral and righteous, even if politicians first do a bunch of complicated pseudo-religious rituals, & then call the robbery law & taxation.

Newsflash: You, me, or any number of individuals agreeing to such childish immorality, can NOT legitimately delegate rights they don't have. This is NOT rocket science. It's pretty freaking basic logic. (rolls eyes, yet again) And no offense, don't take this personal, because it is in no way, meant in such a way.

It don't matter HOW many billions of people agree with the lie you are attempting to sell. Try this, honestly ask yourself these 5 questions about government, and your belief in government:

--Is there any means by which any number of individuals can delegate to someone else the moral right to do something which none of the individuals have the moral right to do themselves?

--Do those who wield political power (presidents, legislators, etc.) have the moral right to do things which other people do not have the moral right to do? If so, from whom and how did they acquire such a right?

--Is there any process (e.g., constitutions, elections, legislation) by which human beings can transform an immoral act into a moral act (without changing the act itself)?

--When law-makers and law-enforcers use coercion and force in the name of law and government, do they bear the same responsibility for their actions that anyone else would who did the same thing on his own?

--When there is a conflict between an individual's own moral conscience, and the commands of a political authority, is the individual morally obligated to do what he personally views as wrong in order to "obey the law"?